12 Fundamental Doubts About the Doctrine of the Divinity of Christ and Their Reasoned Refutation with Biblical Evidence

If any group stands on a belief, there must be some foundation behind it, even if it is weak in reality; that is a separate matter. In fact, Satan makes such weak foundations appear so beautiful, handsome, and lofty that people settle for them or overlook the weakness for some particular reason. Similarly, if Christians have adopted the belief in the divinity of Christ, they have presented some arguments for it, the analysis of which is the purpose here.(وبالله التوفيق)

First Doubt: In the Bible, Christ is called the Son of God!

“Jesus Christ is called the Son of God many times in the four Gospels and other letters and epistles, which proves His divinity because a son is of the essence of his father.”

Answer:

First: For those who do not study the Bible, this is a very weighty argument, whereas the reality is the opposite because the term Son of God (ابن اللہ) is not used exclusively for Jesus (peace be upon him); rather, the Bible is full of it, indicating that according to biblical terminology, the Son of God is said to mean His beloved, close, and favored person, not its literal meaning. Otherwise, all those people for whom this title is used in the Bible would also be entitled to be called the true sons of God, and their mention is coming ahead.

Second: If the term Son of God used for Jesus (peace be upon him) is taken in its literal sense, then the words Son of Man

and Son of David

used for him in the Bible contradict it because here too the literal meaning is intended, and it is impossible for one person to have two literal fathers; inevitably, one must be accepted in a figurative sense. Therefore, the figurative meaning will be taken, which the Bible confirms, and that is Son of God.

If someone says that Jesus (peace be upon him) was Son of Man in terms of his humanity and Son of God in terms of his divinity, this is also unacceptable and weak because, as mentioned earlier, one person cannot be both creator and creation, provider and provided for, God and servant at the same time.

Third: The best and most authentic explanation of a difficult word in any book is the one given within the same book. Accordingly, the explanation of the term Son of God in the New Testament is as follows, and that too regarding Jesus (peace be upon him):

“The author of the Gospel of Mark depicts the last moments of Jesus (peace be upon him) and the governor standing before him said upon seeing him breathe his last, ‘Truly this man was the Son of God.'”

Whereas the author of the Gospel of Luke narrates the same event as:
“‘Father! I entrust my spirit into your hands,’ and having said this, Jesus (peace be upon him) breathed his last. Seeing this, the governor praised God and said, ‘Truly this man was righteous.'”

It is understood that Son of God is said for a righteous and chosen person, not for the true son of God.

Son of God:

This term was already in use among the Jews, but the meaning later devised by the Christians is considered by the Jews to be outright disbelief and worthy of death. Therefore, when Jews called someone the Son of God, it inevitably meant something that did not contradict monotheism and was according to the Old Testament of the Bible, which is: beloved, dear, good, righteous, and upright.

1. A Jewish scholar, Nathaniel, was told by Jesus’ disciple Philip:
“The one mentioned by Moses in the Torah and by the prophets, we have found him. He is Jesus, the son of Joseph of Nazareth.” Nathaniel said to him: “Can anything good come out of Nazareth?” Philip said: “Come and see.” When Jesus saw Nathaniel coming toward him, he said about him: “Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit.” Nathaniel said to him: “How do you know me?” Jesus answered: “Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you.” Nathaniel replied: “Rabbi, you are the Son of God.”

This event took place on the second day after Jesus had begun his preaching. It is impossible that a Jewish scholar would use the term Son of God in a meaning that was not yet invented or known. Inevitably, he meant what it meant in his law, which is good, righteous, and upright.

2. It is exactly like how in the Bible a wicked person is called the son of the devil.

3. Jesus Christ said: “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called the sons of God.”

Later in the same chapter of this Gospel, it is written:
“But I say to you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, so that you may be sons of your Father who is in heaven.”

4. In the Gospel of Luke it is written: “Love your enemies, do good, and lend without expecting anything back; and your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the Most High.”

Jesus said about the people of Paradise:
“They shall neither marry nor be given in marriage, for they cannot die anymore; for they are like angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection.”

5. In the Gospel of John it is stated: “But as many as received him, to them he gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in his name; who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.”

From these references in the Gospels, it becomes clear that for their authors, the term Son of God and Ibn Allah was used for a good, righteous, and beloved person close to Allah Almighty.

God’s Son in a Figurative Sense:

6. In some letters of the New Testament, the metaphorical meaning of “Son of God” is so clear that there is no room for doubt or hesitation. For example, in the first letter of John, it is written:
“Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and whoever loves the Father loves the children as well. By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God and keep His commandments.”

At the end of this chapter of the letter, it says:
“We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him.”

In the third chapter of this letter, there is further clarification:
“Whoever is born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. By this the children of God and the children of the devil are evident.”

In the fourth chapter, it is written:
“Beloved, let us love one another, for love is of God; and everyone who loves is born of God and knows God.”

7. Paul wrote in one letter:
“For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. For you did not receive the spirit of bondage again to fear, but you received the Spirit of adoption by whom we cry out, ‘Abba, Father.’ The Spirit Himself bears witness with our spirit that we are children of God.”

8. In his second letter, Paul said:
“Do all things without complaining and disputing, that you may be blameless and harmless, children of God without fault in the midst of a crooked and perverse generation.”

In all these references, words like “Son of God,” “sons of God,” and “born of God” are used not in their literal sense but metaphorically.

God’s Son for the Prophets of Bani Israel:

➊ In both the Old Testament and the New Testament, the term “Son of God” and for many, “God’s only begotten Son” has been used for the prophets of Bani Israel:
“In the Gospel of Luke, the genealogy of Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) is written, which traces back to Adam (peace be upon him), and he is then mentioned as: Adam, son of God.”

It is clear that Prophet Adam (peace be upon him) was not the real son of Allah Almighty. No Christian is ready to accept him as a real son, so how can the word used for Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) indicate that he is the real son?
Furthermore, Adam (peace be upon him) was born without a mother and without a father, whereas Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) had a mother. Therefore, if one insists on accepting the term “real son,” then Adam (peace be upon him) had more right to it, yet neither Muslims nor Christians accept this.

➋ When Allah Almighty sent Prophet Moses (peace be upon him) to speak to Pharaoh, He said:
“Then say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says the Lord: Israel is my firstborn son. So I say to you, let my son go that he may serve me, and if you refuse to let him go, behold, I will kill your firstborn son.'”

➌ Allah Almighty said to Prophet David (peace be upon him):
“And when your days are fulfilled and you lie down with your fathers, I will raise up your offspring after you, who shall come from your body, and I will establish his kingdom. He shall build a house for my name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. I will be his father, and he shall be my son.”

➍ Regarding David (peace be upon him), Allah said:
“He shall call to me, ‘You are my father, my God, and the rock of my salvation.’ And I will make him my firstborn, the highest of the kings of the earth.”

➎ In the book of the Prophet Jeremiah, Allah’s statement is written as:
“I am the father of Israel, and Ephraim (another name for Israel) is my firstborn.”

If calling someone the son of God means a real son, then Prophet David (peace be upon him) and Prophet Jacob (peace be upon him) (Israel) have more right to it because according to previous scriptures and social customs, the firstborn (eldest son) is closer to the father and more deserving of respect than the others; in some regions, he is even considered in place of the father.

Children of Israel are the children of God:

➏ Since ancient times, it is also known that at many places all the children of Prophet Jacob (peace be upon him) were called the children of God, as it is written: “You are the children of the Lord your God.”

➐ In the same book, regarding God’s displeasure with the Children of Israel, it is written:
And God saw it and was displeased, and was angry with the sons and daughters.

➑ In the Psalms it is stated: “I said, You are gods, you are all sons of the Most High; nevertheless, you shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.”

➒ God Almighty said concerning the Children of Israel:
I have nourished and brought up children, but they have rebelled against me.

➓ It is further written: “And the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, You are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, You are the children of the living God.”

⓫ Later in this book, God’s statement is written:
“When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt.”

Angels as Sons of God:

⓬ The Bible tells us that angels are also called sons and children of God Almighty, as it is written: “And on a certain day the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan also came among them.”

The same is written in the second chapter, verse one of this book. No Christian would be ready to take the literal meaning of these passages, so the same word used for Jesus (peace be upon him) will also be taken metaphorically in the light of these arguments.
The term “sons of God” appeared in the Old Testament, whose primary audience was the Jews and in their own language, so when these people take it metaphorically, how can later non-native speakers change its meaning?

Other Languages:

The reality is that the terms “son” and “child” are found in every dictionary and are taken in a metaphorical sense, for example, we have the term “Ibn al-Waqt” (son of the time), in Arabic a traveler is called “Ibn al-Sabeel” (son of the road), similarly those who complete education from any institution are called “Abnaa al-Jamia” (children of the university), etc.
It is the same in the Bible:
Thus, Jesus Christ referred to those going to hell as the children of hell.

And the inhabitants of the city of Jerusalem were called its children.

Worldly people are called children of this world.

While the righteous and upright people are called children of the resurrection.

These were the sayings of Jesus Christ, whereas Paul called the Thessalonians children of light and day.

Is there still any room left?
Objection:
Despite this explanation, Christians insist on calling Jesus Christ the true Son of God and counter these arguments by saying that in fact God called him the only begotten Son

while in other places this is not so.

Answer:

Prophets Yaqub and Dawud (peace be upon them) were called only sons; does this mean they will also be accepted as true sons? In any case, according to the Bible, the word “only” does not have such a status that it can only be understood in its literal sense. Rather, it can also mean elevation, exaltation, and distinction, as in the Torah where Prophet Ibrahim’s (peace be upon him) younger son Ishaq (peace be upon him) is called his only son.

Even though Ibrahim’s elder son Ismail (peace be upon him) was alive and present.
Does this mean that only Prophet Ishaq (peace be upon him) was his true son?

Second Doubt: Calling Allah the Father of Christ

Jesus Christ, peace be upon him, has repeatedly and emphatically referred to Allah Almighty as his Father, which indicates that the Messiah, peace be upon him, was born of Allah Almighty and in that case, he too would be God like his Father.

Answer:

First: It is clear from the Gospels that while Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) called Allah Almighty His Father, He also referred to the believers as His children many times. For example, in the sixth chapter of Matthew, this occurs twelve times, and in

there is the Christian prayer which begins: “Our Father! Who art in heaven.”

If Allah Almighty is the Father of Jesus (peace be upon him), and because of that He becomes God, then all believers would also become God, which is obviously false. Therefore, the meaning of Father must be taken according to the terminology of the Gospel, that is, one who loves, cares, and shows compassion, one who intends good and welfare for people, and guides them.

Second: The meaning of the word Father as a leader and guide is also proven from the Gospels. For instance, on one occasion, there was a dialogue between the Jews and Jesus (peace be upon him), where the Jews called God their Father, but Jesus said: “If God were your Father, you would love Me. You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father.”

The Jews, who wanted to seize and kill Jesus and denied Him, were under the influence of Satan, so Jesus called Satan their father.
Further clarification was given by Paul in his first letter to the Corinthians:
“I do not write these things to shame you, but as my beloved children I warn you. For though you might have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet you do not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel.”

Paul is calling himself a leader and mentor, not indicating actual paternity. This is exactly like how in our society a teacher is sometimes called a father.

Third: In the Bible, not only Jesus (peace be upon him) called Allah Almighty His Father or “my Father,” but many prophets did so as well. Therefore, if anyone doubts the word “my” or “own,” they should remember that this is a very weak and fragile argument, even weaker than a spider’s web. Consider the references:
❀ Allah Almighty said regarding David (peace be upon him):
“He shall call upon Me, ‘You are my Father, my God, and the Rock of my salvation.'”
Then Allah Almighty Himself said: “And I will make him My firstborn.”

Prophet Isaiah addressed Allah Almighty thus: “Surely You are our Father, though Abraham does not know us, and Israel does not acknowledge us. You, O Lord, are our Father, our Redeemer.”

In the next chapter of this book it says:
“O Lord, You are our Father; we are the clay, and You are our potter.”

This is the speech of the prophets. Ordinary people have also called Allah Almighty their Father. For example, the Jews once replied to Jesus (peace be upon him) with these words: “We have one Father, that is God.”

Similarly, the Christian prayer begins:
“Our Father! Who art in heaven.”

Paul also repeatedly referred to Allah Almighty as our Father God.

Therefore, the intention of these prophets and other people was metaphorical, not literal.
Jesus (peace be upon him), who addressed the Jews, knew their scriptures and idioms, and He also used this relationship metaphorically. Otherwise, He would have clarified it at some point, because the purpose of the prophets’ coming is to correct people’s beliefs and ideas, not to create further doubts and suspicions. If the Jews had any suspicion during the entire preaching period (which lasted three years), they would have immediately tried to stone Him, but Jesus tried to calm the matter by clarifying it, the details of which will come under the next doubt.

Third Doubt: I and the Father are One

Christians often highlight the statement of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) and elevate him to the status of God. He said: “I and the Father are one.”

Answer:
If this sentence is read only to that extent, an ordinary person might indeed be confused, but if it is read according to the principle along with the context, then the reality becomes clear. The full passage is as follows:
The feast of dedication was at Jerusalem, and it was winter. Jesus was walking in the temple, in Solomon’s porch. Then the Jews gathered around him and said to him: How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Christ, tell us plainly. Jesus answered them, I told you, and you do not believe. The works that I do in my Father’s name, they bear witness of me. But you do not believe because you are not of my sheep. My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me. And I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one can snatch them out of the Father’s hand. I and the Father are one. The Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works I have shown you from my Father; for which of those works do you stone me? The Jews answered him, For a good work we do not stone you, but for blasphemy; and because you, being a man, make yourself God. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, You are gods? If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, You blaspheme; because I said, I am the Son of God? If I do not do the works of my Father, do not believe me; but if I do them, though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father. Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped from their hands.

➊ Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) explained in very clear words that when I say I am one with God or call myself the Son of God, it is in the same way as your law calls the prophets gods. Obviously, they were neither considered true gods, nor did they preach that to people, nor were they accused of blasphemy; therefore, I am neither committing blasphemy nor deserving the punishment of death.
Note: The calling of prophets gods is mentioned in the Psalms.

➋ Further explaining the statement “I and the Father are one,” Jesus told the Jews that you accuse me of blasphemy because I said I am the Son of God, meaning that despite the phrase “one,” he did not consider himself equal to the Father (God) in every respect but kept his status below Him, i.e., called himself the Son; otherwise, at no time did he call himself the Father. Clearly, the meaning of the phrase under discussion is not what is being inferred.
➌ It is also noteworthy that if Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) were truly God or the true Son of God, he should have clearly confessed it. This was the opportunity because the Jews understood his words (“I and the Father are one”) as a real claim, but Jesus denied this and used these words metaphorically, even citing the Psalms as evidence. If we accept the Christian argument, it proves that Jesus deceived the Jews, did not make his claim clear, and used ambiguity with them. نعوذ بالله من ذلك!
➍ It is also understood that Jesus said phrases like “Son of God” and “God is in me” because Allah appointed him as a messenger, meaning these words are in the sense of beloved, dear, and close, not in the literal sense.
➎ Jesus also used the phrase “one” regarding his disciples and their followers, so should all of them be considered equal to Allah and Jesus in every respect? And can the disciples’ followers be considered equal to them in any respect? The Gospel of John states:
“I do not pray for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word; that they all may be one, as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us, that the world may believe that you sent me. And the glory which you gave me I have given them, that they may be one, as we are one. I in them, and you in me, that they may be made

لا حول ولا قوة إلا بالله

Fourth Doubt: I am in the Father and the Father is in me

Jesus (peace be upon him) said: “I am in the Father and the Father is in me.”

Answer:
The argument of Christians based on this and similar phrases is very weak because:
First: If this sentence is taken at face value, it necessarily proves incarnation, which Christians do not accept, so they inevitably interpret it to mean that the Father and the Son are united in essence; that is, although the words imply two persons, inwardly both are one because the term Father cannot literally apply to the Son nor the Son to the Father. It has already been discussed in detail that even in terms of the inner nature (divinity), their oneness is clearly against reason and tradition.
Second: When we look at the context of this phrase and other references in the New Testament, its meaning becomes clear. For example, in this chapter

it is written:
“On that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you.”
Under the previous doubt, the Gospel of John also refers to Jesus praying for his disciples with these words:
“That they all may be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you; that they also may be one in us. I in them and you in me, that they may be made perfect in one.”

According to these phrases: the Father is in Christ and Christ is in the disciples. The necessary conclusion is that the Father is in the disciples. In terms of logic, understand it as A equals B and B equals C, therefore A equals C. Is there any Christian who, because of these sentences, considers the apostles also to be God?
Consider more biblical references:
“No one has ever seen God; if we love one another, God lives in us and His love is perfected in us, because He has given us of His Spirit. By this we know that we abide in Him and He in us, and we have seen and testify that the Father has sent the Son to be the Savior of the world. Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him.”
“And He is in God. We have come to know and believe the love God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him.”

Paul wrote: “We are the holy ones of the living God. Therefore God said, ‘I will dwell in them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.'”

From these references it is clear that God’s dwelling in the believers means His help and cooperation with them and aligning their will with His will. If this union necessarily implies divinity, then all the apostles, all the Corinthians, indeed all righteous people, would be God. Similarly, the meaning of God being in Jesus (peace be upon him) is that every word and deed of his is by the will, support, love, and pleasure of Allah, and both share the same purpose and intention.

Fifth Doubt: Whoever has seen me has seen the Father

Jesus (peace be upon him) said: “Whoever has seen me has seen the Father.”

Another place says: Christ is the visible image of the invisible God.

Answer:
Before understanding the reality of this sentence, it is very important to see the complete passage. Jesus (peace be upon him) was speaking to his disciples at the Last Supper: “Let not your heart be troubled; you believe in God, believe also in me. In my Father’s house are many rooms; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am.” Thomas (the disciple) said to him, “Lord, we do not know where you are going, so how can we know the way?” Jesus said to him, “I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. If you had known me, you would have known my Father also. From now on you do know him and have seen him.” Philip (the disciple) said to him, “Lord, show us the Father, and that will be enough for us.” Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and you still do not know me, Philip? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works.”

Considering this context, it appears that the expression is metaphorical, not literal, because:
First: Those who call Christ God say that the visible physical body was not God because God has no body, no boundaries, and cannot be seen. This is why they interpret the phrase to mean knowledge, i.e., whoever recognized my divine (Godly) nature has recognized the Father.
But as explained earlier in detail, one person cannot be both human and God at the same time, so this interpretation is invalid. Therefore, an interpretation must be found that is accepted by reason and supported by the Gospels.
Second: Consider the following Gospel references to understand the metaphorical meaning and interpretation more easily:
① Before sending his seventy disciples out two by two on preaching tours, Christ gave them some advice, including: “Whoever listens to you listens to me; whoever rejects you rejects me; and whoever rejects me rejects him who sent me.”

② Another Gospel states: “Whoever receives you receives me, and whoever receives me receives him who sent me.”

③ Christ explained to his disciples: “Whoever receives this child in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives him who sent me.”

Seeing these and other similar references, only a fool would accept the incarnation of Christ in all of them or consider his person as one and the same.
The correct and accurate understanding is that when someone appoints a person for a task and sends them somewhere, whatever happens to that person is considered as happening to the sender. This is the meaning of the phrase under discussion because they pointed to the place where they were going, which was to God. Thomas asked, “We do not know where you are going; how can we know the way?”

Then Jesus said, “I am the way, the truth, and the life,”

meaning the path to reach near God is through my teachings, actions, and character. Therefore, he further said: “No one comes to the Father except through me.”

This is the role of a mediator; no one can reach God without following his footsteps. Jesus further said: “If you had known me, you would have known my Father also. From now on you do know him and have seen him.”

Reflect on these words; they exactly mean what was said earlier in the supporting references—that whatever happens to the appointed person is considered as happening to the sender.
Another disciple, Philip, demanded to see the Father, saying, “Show us the Father; that is enough for us.”

Here Jesus replied with great surprise: “Philip, have I been with you so long, and you still do not know me? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father.”

Meaning, the teachings, character, miracles, etc., of any prophet reflect God because God is the one who sent the prophet.
This meaning is further confirmed by the Bible’s testimony:
(1) No one has ever seen God.

(2) A similar statement is in the first epistle of John

.
Indeed, it is written: “No one has seen him or can see him.”

So if no one can see God, how can seeing Jesus mean seeing God? Therefore, the phrase must be understood as explained above.
(3) Moreover, Jesus himself clearly said:
“But the testimony I have is greater than John’s, for the works that the Father has given me to complete—the very works I am doing—testify that the Father has sent me. And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form.”

If Jesus himself were God, what would the last sentence mean before the Jews? Although they were hearing his voice and seeing his form. Now there are two possibilities:
➊ The phrase should be understood as both the Bible and reason agree—that is, metaphorically.
➋ Or, in this reference, Jesus was lying to the Jews نعوذ بالله من ذلك.
(4) Further support comes from Jesus telling his disciples that the Jews’ case is closed:
“If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not be guilty of sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin. Whoever hates me hates my Father also. If I had not done among them the works no one else did, they would not be guilty of sin. But now they have seen both me and my Father, and yet they hate both.”

Meaning Jesus showed God through his works and used these works as proof of his truthfulness. This is also the meaning of the phrase under discussion (“Whoever has seen me has seen the Father”).
(5) Regarding the doubt raised, Jesus further said to Philip:
“How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words I speak to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works. Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me.”

Meaning Christ neither speaks nor acts on his own but everything is from God, and this is the status of every prophet. As for the phrase “I am in the Father and the Father is in me,” see the previous doubt and its answer, summarized as: in the language of the Gospel, such a phrase is used when both persons share the same purpose, intention, and goal.
Third: If any Christian still insists, we must say according to the Bible that seeing any human is like seeing God because man was created in God’s image.

If seeing Jesus means seeing God, then every human would be God!
In Biblical terminology, seeing a special servant of God is like seeing God. For example, Jacob wrestled with a man all night; when the man could not prevail, he blessed Jacob and let him go, naming the place Peniel, saying, “I have seen God face to face, yet my life is preserved.”

But when the prophet Hosea narrated this event, he clearly said the man wrestling was an angel.

Similarly, Manoah saw the angel of God and said, “We have seen God.”

Thus, the phrase under discussion regarding Jesus means the same because he was also a special servant sent by God. As he himself said: “Whoever sees me sees him who sent me.”

Sixth Doubt: I am from above, not of this world

Hazrat Isa (Jesus) عليه السلام said: “You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world.”

It is understood that Hazrat Isa عليه السلام came to this world from the heavens and took human form; therefore, he is God.

Answer:

First: Such a statement has also been made by him for his disciples. Are they also gods?
Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) said to his disciples: “If you were of the world, the world would love its own; but because you are not of the world, but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hates you.”

Later, addressing God (his calling God also indicates that he himself is not God), he said: “I have given them Your word, and the world has hated them because they are not of the world, just as I am not of the world. I do not ask that You take them out of the world, but that You keep them from the evil one. As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world.”

The correct interpretation of this statement is that Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) and his disciples are not seekers or greedy for this world, but their focus is on the kingdom of heaven and eternal life, which will be granted in the hereafter. A person indifferent to the world is also called among us, “What kind of inhabitant of this world is this? He seems to have come here from another realm.”
Second: Angels are also not of this world but from above, and sometimes they take human form. So, are they also gods? Are Christians ready to accept them as gods?

Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) said: “No one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven.”

Answer:
Two statements are inferred here:
(1) The one who is in heaven.
(2) The one who descended from heaven.
The phrase “the one who is in heaven” does not exist in the older manuscripts of the Gospel of John; it was added at a later time. For this reason, after research, this phrase has now been omitted in the translations published by them.
For example, it can be seen in the 2015 edition of the Urdu Juelinks Bible, the Arabic Al-Kitab Al-Muqaddas Lebanon edition 1993, the English RSV, the English NIV, etc. Therefore, this phrase has lost its value due to being an addition. But if any Christian still insists on this phrase, in response we say that there are also angels in heaven. According to the Bible, the prophet Elijah was taken up to heaven.

God’s sword is in heaven.

There is water in heaven.

There are powers in heaven.

If the phrase under discussion is read from the beginning of the chapter, it will become clear that Jesus Christ is explaining to a Pharisee scholar about receiving spiritual life (salvation).

Eighth Doubt: Before the Creation of the World

Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) said: “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”

Prophet John (peace be upon him) said: “He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.”

Later, Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) prayed to Allah Almighty: “And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.”

Answer:
(1) The fact that any personality existed before Prophet Yahya, Prophet Abraham, Prophet Adam (peace be upon them), or even before the creation of the universe does not indicate that he is God. At most, it shows that Allah Almighty created him before the creation of the heavens and the earth or before the birth of mankind.
(2) Such words indicate closeness and a special relationship, but a separate proof is required for divinity, which is not present in the mentioned statements. This is supported by the Gospel of John where Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) prayed to Allah Almighty: “Father, I want those you have given me to be with me where I am, so that they may see my glory, the glory you have given me because you loved me before the creation of the world.”

Being before someone indicates a special relationship and also aims to clarify the antiquity of prophetic knowledge, meaning that even before the creation of all creatures, Allah knew me. A similar meaning exists in Islam in the noble saying of Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him): “I was a prophet while Adam (peace be upon him) was still between the spirit and the body.”

(3) Being before Prophet Abraham can mean either in terms of divinity (laahoot), or humanity (naasoot), or a combination of both.
It cannot be divinity because no one can see God.

Whereas in the first reference presented in the objection, Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) himself said that Abraham was very glad to see my day.

Inevitably, this refers to the days of Jesus Christ’s (peace be upon him) mission, which occurred hundreds of years after Abraham. Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) explained this to his disciples as follows: “I tell you the truth, many prophets and righteous people longed to see what you see but did not see it, and to hear what you hear but did not hear it.”

Similarly, precedence in humanity (naasoot) is not possible as it contradicts Christian beliefs, and since Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) was born centuries after Abraham, this possibility is also excluded.
What remains is the meaning according to both natures combined, but for this, the birth of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) is necessary, and since this happened centuries after Abraham, none of these three possibilities remain. Only one remains, which is different from all three and also reasonable: being before Abraham means that the days of Jesus Christ’s (peace be upon him) mission were already known to Allah Almighty from eternity.
Objection:
If someone tries to respond that Abraham saw the day he longed to see and was glad, as written in

, it appears that he cannot be grouped with other prophets who longed but did not see.
Answer:
To refute this objection, we ask: Whom did Abraham see? The divine nature (laahoot), the human nature (naasoot), or both combined? The divine nature cannot be seen because no one can see Allah Almighty. If the human nature (physical body) is meant, then when did the Son of God become incarnate? If we accept that it was before or during Abraham’s time, then whose body was born in the house of the Virgin Mary? According to Christian belief, God had already taken a body? And what logic is this that the first incarnation did not require birth, but the second incarnation necessarily does?
And if seeing both natures combined is meant, then this event happened hundreds of years after Abraham, so how could he see it before? Inevitably, the meaning already explained must be taken.
(4) If being before Abraham and other prophets and the creation of the world is proof of divinity, then Melchizedek should also be God because the Bible says about him: “He is without father or mother, without genealogy, without beginning of days or end of life, resembling the Son of God.”

Moreover, angels, jinn, and others existed before; what about them?

Ninth Doubt: I Am

Christian gentlemen also say that Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) used the phrase “I am,” which is exclusive to God Almighty, therefore he is God.

Answer:
(1) From the Bible, it is understood that God Almighty revealed a name for Himself.

But nowhere is it written that this is an exclusive name, nor did Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) use it as a name for himself here. You can observe the passage under the previous doubt.
(2) It is common in our society that when the door is knocked, someone inside asks, “Who is it?” If the person outside is known, he usually replies, “I am.” Should we then accept him as God?
(3) If we look at the Bible, the same phrase was used by Prophet Abraham (peace be upon him)

, Prophet Moses (peace be upon him)

, and the disciples of Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) also used it for themselves.

Look at the English Bible for Abraham and Moses because in Urdu translations it is written as “I am present,” while for the disciples, the Urdu Bible can also be checked.
(4) When God Almighty revealed this name to Prophet Moses (peace be upon him), it is not “I am” but “I am who I am” that is written.

Therefore, this cannot be used as an argument.

Tenth Doubt: Jesus (peace be upon him) was called God

Jesus Christ said to the Jews: “How can the Messiah be called the son of David? For David himself says in the Psalms: The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool. Therefore David calls him Lord; how then is he his son?”

Answer:
(1) The passage from the Psalms which Jesus Christ presented as a prophecy about himself actually indicates the negation of divinity. Consider carefully. This reference is in

. Now look at this passage according to them: The Lord (i.e., Allah Almighty) said to my Lord (i.e., Jesus Christ): Sit at my right hand, etc.
It is absolutely incorrect to take the second word “Lord” to mean the true God, because then it would mean that God is telling Himself to sit at His right hand. And if this is a separate entity from the true God and is also the true God, then multiplicity in God would be implied, which is never correct. Moreover, how can this (Jesus Christ) be the true God if he cannot subdue his enemies himself and needs the cooperation of another God?
(2) Inevitably, the other meaning must be taken, which is not contrary to monotheism, and that is that Jesus Christ was clarifying his status and rank before the Jews, saying: Why do you merely consider me the son of David when David himself appointed me as a teacher, instructor, and guide for the Children of Israel? The evidence for this is that in many places Jesus Christ is called Rabbi (my Lord) meaning teacher. For example, it is written: Jesus then asked them again, seeing them coming after him, “What do you seek?” They said to him, “Rabbi” (meaning teacher), “where do you live?”

Note: Remember that the interpretation of Rabbi in brackets (meaning teacher) is from the Bible, not from me.
Similarly, Mary Magdalene called Jesus “Rabboni,” which is translated as “O teacher.”

Further confirmation is that in the Arabic Bible

, the above reference is translated as: “The Lord said to my Master,” meaning God said to my master (chief and leader). Thus, the Semitic scholars who translated from Hebrew to Arabic also acknowledge that the second word “Lord” here is not the true God.
If you look at the Bible, the Psalm referenced uses Yahweh for the first Lord and Adonai for the second, and this word is not exclusively for the true God but is also used for leaders and guides, as Ezra (Prophet Uzair) was called Adonai

. Was he also the true God? Perhaps this is why the Urdu translation published by the Bible Society Anarkali Lahore renders it as: Yahweh said to my Lord

.
If still any Christian insists, the following Bible references will suffice, where other prophets and righteous people are also called Lord. For example, Abraham

, Isaac’s eldest son Esau

, the King of Egypt

, Joseph

, Sisera

, David

, Nebuchadnezzar

, kings

, masters and lords

, Governor Pilate

.
Question:
In the reference under discussion, the second word “Lord” is translated in Greek as “Kyrios,” which is used only for the true God.
Answer:
This is absolutely incorrect; see details further on

.

Answer:
First: Before going into detail, it is very important to consider the complete passage and incident used in the Christian argument.
➊ Then he got into the boat and crossed over, and came to his own city.
➋ And behold, they brought to him a paralytic lying on a bed. Jesus, seeing their faith, said to the paralytic, “Son, be of good cheer; your sins are forgiven.”
➌ And behold, some of the scribes said within themselves, “This man blasphemes.”
➍ But Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said, “Why do you think evil in your hearts?”
➎ Which is easier: to say, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Rise and walk’?
➏ But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins”—he said to the paralytic—”I say to you, rise, take up your bed, and go to your house.”
➐ And he rose and went home.
➑ And they were afraid, and glorified God, who had given such authority to men.

First: Here two points are noteworthy:
① Jesus (peace be upon him) did not say to the paralytic, “I have forgiven your sins,” rather he gave the glad tidings that his sins were forgiven. There is a clear difference between these two sentences because the second sentence (the one giving glad tidings) at most indicates that Allah Almighty forgave the paralytic’s sins and the news was conveyed by Jesus (peace be upon him). This is the usual method of the Prophets (peace be upon them) because it is their responsibility to convey unseen news from Allah to the people, as our master and lord Muhammad (peace be upon him) informed many companions about entering Paradise and forgiveness of sins, while he also informed some people about Hell.
② What remains is the sentence: “that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins,” which is a metaphorical attribution.
Its indications are as follows:
(a) Because the last sentence of this story is that the people were afraid and glorified God who had given such authority to men, indicating that the true forgiver is God, and Jesus (peace be upon him) was merely the announcer of this.
(b) Similarly, the term “Son of Man” also indicates this because God never uses this term for Himself, nor is God the Son of Man.
(c) People understood that God had given this authority, meaning there is an entity who grants Jesus (peace be upon him) these powers. If he himself were God, then who grants and takes away these powers?
(d) Their silence also indicates this; moreover, if their authority was real, then from which God did they seek forgiveness of sins for the people?
Accordingly, the incident of Jesus being crucified is recorded in the Gospel of Luke, and at that time he addressed God thus: Jesus said, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they do.”

Second: The authority to forgive sins was also given to his disciples; are they also God? Inevitably, this attribution must be accepted here as metaphorical, just as it is metaphorical for the disciples, so it is metaphorical for Jesus (peace be upon him). Regarding the disciples, it is written: Jesus said again to them, “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, even so I send you.” And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”

The oldest and largest Christian sect, the Catholic Church, expanded this authority further and also granted it to the priests. Therefore, anyone who goes to the Confession box and confesses their sins, the priest sitting inside declares forgiveness. Moreover, for some time, they even took money from people and issued tickets and receipts for Paradise.
Third: If Jesus (peace be upon him) had the authority to forgive sins, then why could he not forgive the original sin without dying on the cross? Also, in the above reference, those whose sins were declared forgiven were not even believers in the cross; were their sins really forgiven?

Twelfth Doubt: The Lord

The disciple Thomas called Jesus Christ “My Lord and my God”

and He did not object, indicating that He was God. Similarly, once He said to His disciples, “You call me Teacher and Lord, and rightly so, for I am.”

Answer:
In the Bible, the words Lord and God are frequently used metaphorically, so such a common word cannot be proof of true divinity. In the Gospel of John

, this word is used for the prophets as well, and the same is found in the Psalms

. According to the Christian work ”كليد الكتاب“

, this word has been used twenty-nine (29) times in the Bible for humans. So, were they also true gods? For more details, see the tenth doubt.

Miracles and Conditions of Jesus Christ:

Some people present as evidence for the divinity of Jesus (peace be upon him) that he revived the dead, healed the blind and lepers, was born without a father, and ascended to the heavens alive after death, meaning they rely on his circumstances, events, and miracles as proof. However, the Bible itself shows that there are prophets whose events and miracles are greater than those of Jesus (peace be upon him), and some are not even prophets, as greater miracles occurred through his disciples. Details will follow. Were they also gods?

On the other hand, it is known from the Bible that no prophet can prove his truthfulness merely by showing miracles because false claimants of prophethood also perform great miracles. So, what cannot be a proof of prophethood cannot prove anyone’s divinity either.

It is written in the Torah: If among you a prophet or a dreamer appears and gives you a sign or a wonder, and the sign or wonder he told you about comes to pass, and he says to you, “Let us follow other gods, whom you have not known, and worship them,” you shall not listen to the words of that prophet or dreamer. That prophet or dreamer shall be put to death.

Jesus (peace be upon him) himself explicitly said: If anyone says to you, “Look, the Messiah is here,” or “There he is,” do not believe it, because false messiahs and false prophets will arise and show great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect.

It is also noteworthy that miracles originate from humans; God manifests His power.

After this fundamental introduction, we will separately present and analyze their arguments.

Answer:
(1) The miraculous birth without a father is by no means proof of divinity because Muslims and Christians agree that Prophet Adam (peace be upon him) was born without a mother and without a father, yet no one calls him God.
The Holy Quran has likened these two prophets in terms of creation and said:

إِنَّ مَثَلَ عِيسَىٰ عِندَ اللَّهِ كَمَثَلِ آدَمَ ۖ خَلَقَهُ مِن تُرَابٍ ثُمَّ قَالَ لَهُ كُن فَيَكُونُ ‎ ﴿٥٩﴾ ‏ الْحَقُّ مِن رَّبِّكَ فَلَا تَكُن مِّنَ الْمُمْتَرِينَ ‎ ﴿٦٠﴾ ‏

“Indeed, the example of Jesus to Allah is like that of Adam. He created him from dust; then He said to him, ‘Be,’ and he was.”
Moreover, the New Testament mentions a person who was a priest and had neither a father nor a mother, whose beginning and end are unknown, named Melchizedek.
It is written: “And this Melchizedek, king of Salem, priest of the Most High God, remains a priest forever. When Abraham returned from defeating the kings, he met him and blessed him, and Abraham gave him a tenth of everything. He is first, according to the meaning of his name, the king of righteousness, and then Salem, meaning king of peace. This fatherless, motherless, without genealogy, without beginning of days or end of life, is likened to the Son of God.”

If this man, despite these attributes, is not God, then how can Jesus Christ be God? And why is birth without a father presented as proof?
(2) On one hand, they are called God, and on the other hand, their birth is used as proof. Does God get born? Absolutely not. Being born indicates that one is a created being and will end one day, whereas attributing these qualities to Allah is an insult and against the dignity of divinity.
(3) If birth without a father is proof of divinity, then what about the insects and worms born in fruits like the amrud (guava) and others? Where would they fit in?

Answer:
In the modern era, the miracles and supernatural events attributed to Jesus Christ are far surpassed by the great miracles performed by previous prophets and others in the ancient era. Similarly, in the modern era, supernatural events in His name are also seen occurring through His disciples and apostles. In fact, Jesus Christ stated that every person with perfect faith would also perform such acts. It is written:
“And these signs will accompany those who believe: in my name they will cast out demons; they will speak in new tongues; they will pick up snakes with their hands; and if they drink anything deadly, it will not harm them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover.”

Jesus Christ also said: “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I am going to the Father.”

Furthermore, He said: “Truly I tell you, if you have faith as small as a mustard seed, you can say to this mountain, ‘Move from here to there,’ and it will move; and nothing will be impossible for you.”

This is the matter concerning the righteous and believers. Earlier, you also read from the Bible that false and deceitful people will perform great miracles and lead the righteous astray. Therefore, the occurrence of a supernatural event by any person can never be proof of their divinity. Separate evidence is available.

First: Reviving Men

If this miracle is taken as proof of divinity, then Prophet Musa (Moses) عليه السلام would have to be considered greater than God because his miracle was the staff turning into a snake, which initially had neither life, nor eyes, nor a tongue, nor hands and feet. Whereas Prophet Isa (Jesus) عليه السلام breathed life into a human body (by Allah’s command), which already had life, eyes, tongue, etc.

Similarly, Prophet Harun’s (Aaron) عليه السلام miracle is also greater than that because he brought the dust of the earth to life and created lice. It is written: Then the Lord said to Moses, “Say to Aaron, ‘Stretch out your staff and strike the dust of the ground,’ so that it may become lice throughout the land of Egypt.” So he stretched out his hand with his staff and struck the dust of the ground, and lice came upon man and beast; all the dust of the land became lice throughout all the land of Egypt.

In earlier times, there was also a prophet Elijah, known to Muslims as Sayyiduna Ilyas عليه السلام, who prayed and brought a dead boy back to life.

These are the miracles of living prophets; the Bible also mentions that a dead man was placed in the grave of Elisha and he came back to life upon touching his bones.

A miracle of raising the dead also occurred through the disciple of Prophet Messiah عليه السلام, Sayyiduna Peter.

Objection:
Regarding this and similar arguments, Christians say that the miracles performed by previous prophets and disciples were not personal but happened through the help and cooperation of Allah, whereas the miracles of Messiah عليه السلام were personal, therefore he is God.

Answer:
Under the eleventh doubt, it was explained that the attribution of these acts to Prophet Messiah عليه السلام is metaphorical; in reality, it is Allah who grants the power. For further clarification, this reference will suffice. Addressing the Israelites, the greatest disciple and close follower of Isa عليه السلام, Sayyiduna Peter said:
“O Israelites! Listen to these words: Jesus of Nazareth was a man attested to you by God through miracles, wonders, and signs which God performed among you through him.”

Second: Revival Among Men

Some people argue like this: No matter how great the prophets were, they showed the miracle of raising men from the dead only by the permission and command of Allah Almighty, but none could bring themselves back to life after their own death. Only Jesus Christ, peace be upon him, did this; therefore, he was God.

Answer:
Even if we hypothetically accept that Jesus Christ, peace be upon him, died on the cross, was buried for three days and three nights, and then rose again, it still does not prove from the New Testament that he revived himself by his own power and ability. Rather, it was a Being who was separate and distinct from him who brought him back to life, and that was Allah Almighty.

And if this is an argument for divinity, then every person in the world, regardless of their religion, would be entitled to be called God because on the Day of Judgment Allah Almighty will resurrect everyone.

In any case, Allah Almighty revived him; see the references below.

➊ Paul said: “Yes, he was crucified because of weakness, but he lives by the power of God.”

➋ In his letter to the Romans, Paul wrote: “Therefore we were buried with him through baptism into death, so that just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life.”

Advising these people, it is written:

➌ “And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, he who raised Christ Jesus from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies through his Spirit who dwells in you.”

➍ “When he was delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men, but God raised him up, loosing the pangs of death.”

This statement is from Peter, who was the deputy and chief disciple of Jesus, peace be upon him.

➎ Similarly, he said: “You killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead.”

➏ Moreover, this belief is declared the cause and means of salvation. “If you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.”

Further references are as follows:

In all these places, it is explicitly stated that Allah Almighty revived Jesus, peace be upon him. Therefore, when the foundation itself is weak, how can the structure stand firm?

Furthermore, it is also worth considering that the death and then revival of a person is being taken as proof of divinity. Did God die? What kind of God is this?

Third Argument: The disciples prostrating to him

One argument for the divinity of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) is that some of his disciples and certain people prostrated to him, and prostration is only due to God.
Answer:
Anyone who reads the Bible well knows that it mentions several prophets to whom people prostrated, and on some occasions, one prophet prostrated to another prophet. Even more significant is that prophets prostrated to ordinary humans. Does this mean all of them are God? Absolutely not, because prostration is of two types: one for worship and the other for respect and honor. The prostration of worship is done only and exclusively to Allah Almighty, while the prostration of respect was permissible and correct for other creatures. Islam came and forbade even this.
Not only the Bible but also the Holy Quran permits this kind of prostration in earlier nations, as when Prophet Joseph (peace be upon him) was prostrated to by his parents and brothers.
Prophet Adam (peace be upon him) was prostrated to by angels.
In any case, the incidents and verses from the Bible are as follows:
(1) Prophet Abraham (peace be upon him) prostrated to the people of the tribe of Bani Hat.

(2) The same chapter mentions it again.

(3) Prophet Jacob (peace be upon him), his children, and household prostrated to the elder brother Esau, and Prophet Jacob himself prostrated seven times.

(4) Prophet Joseph (peace be upon him) was prostrated to by his brothers.

(5) Prophet Joseph (peace be upon him) prostrated to his father Prophet Jacob (peace be upon him).

(6) Prophet Moses (peace be upon him) prostrated to his father-in-law.

(7) Prophet David (peace be upon him) prostrated to the king of the time, Saul (Talut).

(8) A woman named Abigail prostrated to Prophet David (peace be upon him).

(9) Prophet Solomon’s (peace be upon him) mother Bathsheba prostrated to her husband Prophet David (peace be upon him).

(10) During the time of Prophet David (peace be upon him), there was a prophet named Nathan who also prostrated to Prophet David (peace be upon him).

Note: To verify these references, keep the Arabic Bible specifically at hand because the word for prostration is explicitly written there, whereas in the Urdu Bible, in some places, it is translated as bowing the head.
Objection:
The word used for prostration to Jesus Christ in Greek (proskuneo) is the same word used for God, so both prostrations are of the same nature.
Answer:
If mere lexical similarity makes a non-God into God, then countless creatures would become God. What remains unique about Jesus Christ (peace be upon him)? For example, the word Elohim is used for God in the Bible, but the same word is also used for Moses (peace be upon him)

and angels

, and it has also been said for ordinary humans.

Similarly, the special biblical name for God is Yahweh, whose pronunciation is still not agreed upon by Jews or Christians; some say Yahweh, some Yahveh, and some Adonai. However, this word also appears for non-God entities, for example in Exodus

, where Bible commentators have numbered it 23 and noted that it also appears in Numbers

, where it is translated as angel.
Similarly, this word has been used for three prophets: Moses (peace be upon him), Jesus (peace be upon him), and Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him).
The Hebrew Bible mentions the coming of these three prophets as an exception

, translated in Urdu as: The Lord came from Sinai and dawned upon them from Seir; He appeared from the mountains of Paran, ten thousand.

He came with the holy ones, and in His right hand was a fiery law for them.

From these places, it is clear that God did not come but three prophets came. It is evident that mere lexical similarity does not make someone God.
(1) Now coming to the word under discussion (proskuneo), in the Greek Bible this word is generally found only for God and Christ, but in some places, it is also used for others. For example, see the Greek Bible Acts of the Apostles

, translated as: When Peter was about to enter, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet and prostrated. Here the same word (proskuneo) is used. It is clear that this prostration was of respect, not worship, which is only due to Allah Almighty. Similarly, for Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), this is also in the sense of respectful prostration because it is as clear as daylight that he is not God. Likewise, in Revelation

, it says: Behold, I will make those of the synagogue of Satan who say they are Jews and are not but lie, come and prostrate at your feet and know that I love you. This is said by God to the angel of Philadelphia, and the same word is used here. Does this mean this angel is also God?
(2) At the birth of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), Magi came from the East and prostrated to him and also gave gifts.

Here also the same word is used. Obviously, the Magi neither considered him God nor did his parents, nor was it known among the Jews that Christ would be God. Therefore, this prostration cannot be anything other than respectful prostration.
(3) The Greek word has the number

assigned to it, which refers to the well-known and reliable Strong’s Greek-English dictionary of the Bible. Its translation is as follows:
(First) To kiss like a dog, knowing, as it licks the hand of its master.
(Second) To express humiliation, to be afraid, to fall at the feet, to fear.
(Third) To bow down, to flatter.
(Fourth) Prostration of worship and prostration of respect; these are the words:

Fourth Argument: Kyrios

In the Greek language, “Kyrios” is also a specific name for God, and it has been used only for the Almighty God and Jesus Christ; therefore, Jesus is God.
Answer:
(1) One should not be deceived by similar names; the details have already been discussed under the previous objection.
(2) Kyrios is not used only for God and Jesus Christ but has also been used for several other individuals in the Greek Bible:
a. For the owner of a donkey and a she-donkey

b. For the owner of a slave girl

c. Paul and Silas were called Kyrios

d. This name was given to a king

In the Greek Bible, this word has the number

, which refers to Strong’s Dictionary. When checked there, the translation was:
Sir, Master, Lord, Authority, God. It was found that this word is not exclusive to God.

Fifth Argument: The Issue of Incarnation

One argument given for the divinity of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) is that He was the Word, and the Word became incarnate and came into the world; therefore, He Himself was God.
The following verses are cited for this argument:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us, full of grace and truth.”

Response:
This passage is neither from Allah Almighty nor from Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him), whereas belief is formed based on the statements of these two personalities. Can any person in later times attribute his own theory to Allah or any of His prophets?
In any case, the following questions arise, leading us to conclude that Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) was not incarnate God but rather a servant and messenger of Allah:
1. Before Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), many prophets came, and even during his lifetime, John the Baptist (peace be upon him) was present. The Jews accepted him as a prophet. Did anyone teach the belief that the Word was God or incarnate? Is there any such teaching in the Old Testament? Christian semi-scholars themselves shed light:
If this belief is viewed in the context of the monotheism of the Old Testament, it appears as disbelief, and strict Jews held this view.

2. Did Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) himself ever claim that I am incarnate God or present the theory of the Word becoming incarnate?
3. If the Word (the second person of the Trinity) became incarnate, then God the Father became inferior because He does not have this characteristic.
4. Look at the above verses, it says: “In the beginning was the Word.” If the Word was in the beginning, then where was the speaker? Does the speaker come first or the Word?
If the speaker is accepted first, then the Word (God the Son) is not eternal; if the Word is accepted first, then the speaker (God the Father) is not eternal, and neither is possible.
If it is said that the Word was contained in the speaker, so the eternity of both cannot be challenged, then the problem arises that the Word is called Word only when it is issued from the speaker.
Moreover, as long as both remained united in essence (one entity), the form of oneness remained, but as soon as the Word came out of the speaker and became incarnate and took a separate entity, they were no longer united in essence. Thus, God would become two instead of one, and the Christian claim that they believe in one God would be false.
Because in the above verses, the Word is also called God.
5. When the Word issued from the speaker and became incarnate, what is meant by this Word? Is it an attribute of the speaker or a particular word?
If it is an attribute, then after incarnation the speaker remained without the attribute; and if a particular word became incarnate, then which word is it? So that it can be known whether it has the capacity to become incarnate God? And if it does, then why have other similar words not become God?
6. These initial verses of the Gospel of John are not from Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) but from the author who is not a prophet and whose authorship is disputed. Can a belief be established on the words of a non-prophet on which salvation depends?
7. When the Word was not a body, it was not called God the Son, which shows it is a created being, and created beings perish, they do not remain. This is why the Bible also acknowledges the death of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) on the cross, and Christians say:
“The Lord Jesus Christ accepted a cursed death for us” (نعوذ بالله).
Is God like this?
8. The beginning of God the Son is from the incarnation of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), not before. When the Word was not the Son, then changing into the Son is a change in divinity, and God is unchanging.
9. Until the Word took incarnation, it was not called God the Son; so when the Word died on the cross or in other words became non-incarnate, then in principle it was no longer the Son, because a body is necessary for the Son.
❀ If Christians say that after death the Word again took a body, then the question arises: does it need to be born again? If the answer is no, then why was it necessary before? And by what law was it ended now? And if the answer is yes (which is obviously impossible), then where did the rebirth take place?
Is it not that at the time of death the Word remained incarnate? But in that case, the death of the Word must be accepted. Can God die?
Christian scholars write: “And this theory of abandoning Christ was also good, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are together, that is why we say God is one. They were together at the time of creation of the universe, together at the baptism of Christ, and also together at the event of the cross.”

❀ If Christians say that God the Son is not God but only the body which the Word took, then why is it said that Jesus triumphed over death? This victory is of the body which was left helpless at the time of death. Thus, only a human sacrificed for humans, not God the Son, so true atonement did not happen.
10. The Word incarnate is God and is called God the Son. It is also a belief that God is one. It appears that this was the only God. When God the Son came out after baptism, whose voice from heaven said: “This is my beloved Son”?

The Holy Spirit (the third person of divinity) who came in the form of a dove at that time, then which incarnate God was He?
11. If God the Son was incarnate God, then why did He say: “The Father is greater than I”?

Is there anyone greater than God?
12. If Jesus was God the Son from the moment of incarnation, then why does the Bible say: “Jesus had not yet come into his glory”?

Did He gradually receive divinity? Or should it be said that God is devoid of glory?
13. What kind of incarnate God is God the Son who was separate from God even before incarnation because the above verses say the Word was with God, remained separate during earthly service, after death did not merge into God but sat at His right hand

, and will be separate when He returns again.
14. If Jesus is God in body, then obviously He became God as soon as He took a body, so what was the food of God in the mother’s womb? Every human knows. Then God was born, then God was circumcised, etc., etc. Is God like this?
If it is answered that these matters happened with humanity, then the question arises: when did the Word take incarnation?
15. If incarnation of God is possible, then what about this reference in the Bible?
“They became fools by thinking themselves wise and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images resembling mortal man, birds, animals, and reptiles.”

16. The problem of incarnation is that two things, divinity (Godhood) and humanity, unite. If after incarnation there are two, then how is it incarnation? If they become one, then one must necessarily be annihilated. Which one is it? Decide for yourself.
And if it is said that a third form is created in this union, then this is change and transformation. Can there be change in God?
Understand this with an example: if milk and water unite, neither pure milk remains nor water, but a third thing appears. Therefore, accepting a body without change is utterly unreasonable.
17. The humanity of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) is like other humans, and it is known from the Bible and Quran that no human can see God in this world. So how did God incarnate in humanity?
18. Moses (peace be upon him) heard the voice of God which was different from humans, so the Children of Israel said to Moses: “You speak to us and we will listen, but do not let God speak to us, or we will die.”

Whereas the voice of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) was heard daily like other humans.
19. It is observed that when a jinn enters a person, the voice changes. Witnesses see that this is not the person speaking. If divinity (Godhood) wore the garment of humanity, then there should have been a difference here too.
20. When Allah Almighty sent lightning on the mountain, it could not bear it. Where is the power in the human body?
21. When divine speech descended on the prophets, their condition changed. When divinity came into the body of Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), why did no change occur accordingly?
22. Who was addressing the people? If it is divinity (Godhood), then to whom was the prayer made? Who suffered pain and distress? If it is humanity, then God did not address as He did with Moses from the tree.
23. When God spoke from the tree, it was in a divine manner, whereas Jesus spoke in a human manner: “I am a messenger, a creation, needy, a human,” etc.
24. If Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) was incarnate God, then how could he be bound by Moses and the Torah? An angel of the law is not bound, how did God become bound? He is far above such matters.
25. If miracles were performed by incarnate God whose expression was through humanity, then earlier prophets did not have incarnation and many had greater miracles. Did God become weak after incarnation?
Question:
According to Islam, the Quran (which is the Word of God) will become incarnate on the Day of Judgment. Then why object to our belief?
Answer:
1. This means righteousness and reward, not the Word of God, as Imam Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) recorded the scholars’ opinion.

The evidence is that according to the Prophetic tradition, in the grave, good and bad deeds will appear in human form. The good deed will come as a handsome young man and say: أنا عملك الصالح meaning “I am your good deed,” and the bad deed will come in an ugly form.

2. Even if the incarnation of the Quran is accepted hypothetically, our belief is never that when the Quran comes in human form, it will be God. You people directly call “incarnate God” God. Therefore, this is not beneficial.
3. The affairs of this world are different, and those of the Hereafter are different. There are countless matters which you also admit will not happen in this world.
Will you build any belief on any of these? Obviously, the above answer will be given. For example, if someone performs Hajj and claims divinity, and you ask for proof, he says: “Is it not your belief that God will judge on the Day of Judgment? I do it in this world, so I am God!”
Will this argument be accepted?
Or if someone claims divinity by burning in fire and says: “God will also burn people in Hell on the Day of Judgment, so I am God!”
Therefore, our and your disagreement is on the incarnation of the Word in this world and then accepting it as God on that basis.
4. There is also a difference in that in Christian belief, incarnation requires birth from a woman’s womb, whereas the incarnation of the Quran (if accepted) is not like this at all. Therefore, literally the word ”تجسیم“ can be said, but for the Quran it is more appropriate to say ”تمثل“, which implies artificiality and construction, as when Angel Gabriel (peace be upon him) came in human form, since he was without birth, the Quran used the word ”تمثل“ for him.

Sixth Argument: Attaining Salvation

It is written: “If you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, you will be saved.”

And further it is written: “Whoever calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

It is understood that Prophet Messiah (peace be upon him) was God.
Answer:
(1) For humans, the words “God” and “Lord” mean prophet, messenger, and guide, as has been explained in detail. Therefore, it is correct that salvation lies in believing that Prophet Messiah (peace be upon him) is the Messenger of Allah. How does this prove that he is God?
It is exactly like when we Muslims say that whoever recites ”لا إله إلا الله محمد رسول الله“ will be saved. Does anyone think that we are calling Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) God? (نعوذ بالله)
These Bible references also mean that if one calls on the name of Allah, they will be saved, and along with that, if they accept Prophet Messiah (peace be upon him) as the Messenger of Allah, they will be saved.
(2) If the argument is that since salvation is attained through Prophet Messiah (peace be upon him), this is proof of his divinity, then many other things would have to be considered God:
Paul also grants salvation

It is written about Moses (peace be upon him): “The Lord gave Israel a savior”

Words also give salvation

(3) If you read the reference mentioned in the argument completely, it negates the divinity of Prophet Messiah (peace be upon him). It is written:
“That if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.”

Can God die? And which God is this who raised this “God” to life?

Seventh Argument: The First and the Last

I am the First and the Last.

This was said by Hazrat Masih (Jesus) عليه السلام, and being the First and the Last is an attribute of God alone.
Answer:
(1) The author of this book (Revelation) is John the mystic, but who is he? No one knows.
Christian scholars themselves admit: “It is said that the author of Revelation is John, but it is not known with certainty who this John was. Even today, this issue is under debate. John was a common name among Christians and Jews. The author himself never claimed to be one of Jesus’ twelve disciples. It might be easier to estimate when this book was written, although even that cannot be stated with certainty.”

How can a book be presented as evidence when the identity of its author is unknown?
(2) What kind of argument is this that is neither from Hazrat Masih عليه السلام nor from his disciples? This statement was fabricated later. If Hazrat Masih عليه السلام was God and this was proof of his divinity, then why was he unaware of it?
(3) The person who said this sentence in Revelation had a head and hair white like wool or snow.

Hazrat Masih عليه السلام ascended to the heavens at a young age; how can this person be Jesus Christ?
(4) The author of this book saw an angel in Revelation, who also said: “I am Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End.”

Is this angel also God? Are Christians ready to accept this? If you read the referenced passage fully, you will find the rejection of the divinity of the one who says “First and Last” right there. The author wrote: “And he laid his right hand upon me, saying, Fear not; I am the First and the Last, and the Living One; I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore.”

Has God ever died?
It is clear that if Hazrat Masih عليه السلام is meant here, then like other statements, this must be understood metaphorically.

Eighth Argument: Quddus (The Holy)

Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) was called the Holy One, and this is also a name of Allah Almighty.
Answer:
(1) During the life of Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him), he was not called the Holy One but “the Holy One of God.”

If he himself is God, then whose God is the “Holy One”? It is clear that there is a difference between Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) and God.
(2) The term “Holy One” for Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) was used only by later people. This can be seen in Revelation. So how can this be used as evidence?
(3) In the Old Testament, many people were called holy; does that mean they are also God?
➊ The elders of Israel were called holy

➋ “The Holy One came from Mount Paran”

Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) came from Mecca (Paran), are Christians ready to accept him as God?
➌ It is written about the Prophet Daniel that he has the spirit of the holy ones.

When a similar statement was made in front of them, they did not deny it.

Ninth Argument: The Almighty

Hazrat Messiah (peace be upon him) has been called the Almighty.
Answer:
(1) The author of this book is unknown, as mentioned earlier.
(2) This argument is very weak because neither Hazrat Messiah (peace be upon him) himself said this nor did his disciples; later followers tend to exaggerate the status of their leaders out of reverence.
(3) This phrase contradicts the personal sayings of Hazrat Messiah (peace be upon him), meaning there is a contradiction because his statements clearly negate being Almighty, for example:
“Son, I can do nothing by myself”

“It is not my work to seat on the right or left”

“I do not seek my own will but the will of the one who sent me”

It is evident that both in terms of chain of narration and content, the argument under discussion is weak and insignificant.

Tenth Argument: Owner of the Sabbath

It is written in the Gospel: “The Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath”

And the Lord of the Sabbath is God.
Answer:
1. Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him), like other prophets, was clarifying the commandments of the Jewish law. That is why he presented the argument of Prophet David (peace be upon him) here. Figuratively, any change in the law is attributed to the prophets.
This approach is also found in the Holy Quran, for example, giving anyone other than Allah the right to legislate is to make them a lord

.
When the Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) forbade something on his own accord, Allah prohibited it:

﴿يَا أَيُّهَا النَّبِيُّ لِمَ تُحَرِّمُ مَا أَحَلَّ اللَّهُ لَكَ﴾

“O Prophet, why do you forbid what Allah has made lawful for you?”
And in another place, clarifying what is lawful and unlawful is described as his responsibility:

﴿وَيُحِلُّ لَهُمُ الطَّيِّبَاتِ وَيُحَرِّمُ عَلَيْهِمُ الْخَبَائِثَ﴾

“And He (the Prophet) makes lawful for them the pure things and forbids them the impure.”
2. Reflecting on these Biblical references, the same point becomes clear because if Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) had the current Christian meaning, the present audience, who were strict and fanatical Jews, would certainly have declared him an unbeliever, as they did on another occasion due to suspicion of divine claims.

Furthermore, the term “Son of Man” itself is clear evidence because God cannot be the Son of Man.
3. Taking this phrase to mean divinity contradicts other sayings of Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) where he calls himself powerless (references have already been given).
4. Consider this perspective as well: Just as Allah is the Lord of the heavens, He is also the Lord of the earth. If people call themselves the owners of the earth, does that mean they are claiming divinity? Such examples are abundant in every language and also in the Bible.