Misconception in hand placement in salah

Flaco

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In the Qur’ān, SURAH AL-MĀ’IDAH (5:38) the word yad (hand) in the ḥadd of theft refers to the portion up to the wrist (الرُّسْغ).
So is it not correct that the same meaning applies in ḥadīth language?
Therefore, when Wā’il ibn Ḥujr reports that the Prophet ﷺ placed his yad (hand) over the zahr al-kaff, and the narration mentions the rusgh (wrist) and sa‘id (forearm), should we not conclude that yad in this ḥadīth also means up to the wrist not full forearm— since the Qur’ān defines it that way? Misleading Video Removed by Admin , his First claim i am taking about
Please explain in detail
 
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1. The Qur’ān does not define “yad” as “up to the wrist.”

In al-Mā’idah 5:38, the word يَد is not redefined by the Qur’ān.
Rather, fiqh determines how much is cut when the Qur’ān commands the ḥadd.

Important distinction

Linguistic meaning (lugha) of yad = from fingers → wrist → forearm → even upper arm, depending on context.

Legal ḥadd ruling (fiqh) = jurists specify what portion is amputated.

The fiqh ruling does not redefine the word.
It only specifies the extent of the punishment.

This is why all major schools say:

Yad in Arabic remains broad in meaning.

The ḥadd is delimited by juristic evidence, not linguistic restriction.

2. Classical Arabic usage proves that “yad” can mean:

The full hand

The hand including wrist

The hand plus forearm

Power, generosity, control (figurative)

This is attested in:

Sibawayh

Ibn Fāris (Maqāyīs al-Lugha)

Ibn Manẓūr (Lisān al-Arab)

Al-Azharī

Al-Farrā’

None of them say “yad = up to the wrist” as a universal definition.

3. Therefore: Qur’ān 5:38 does not fix the meaning of yad in all contexts.

The verse is simply commanding a legal punishment.
The jurists then determined the mabtar (cutting point) from:

Sunnah indications

Companion practice

Legal reasoning

Thus, Qur’ān 5:38 cannot be used to linguistically restrict “yad” in prophetic ḥadīth.

4. Now apply this to the ḥadīth of Wā’il ibn Ḥujr

Narrations say:

The Prophet ﷺ placed his yad on ẓahr al-kaff (back of palm).

Other narrations mention al-rusgh (wrist) and al-sa‘id (forearm).

What does this show?

The ḥadīth itself is already delimiting which part of the arm is involved.
Therefore the internal context of the narration determines meaning, not Qur’ān 5:38.

Key principle in uṣūl al-fiqh & linguistics

A word is interpreted according to its usage in its immediate context,
not by importing an external legal definition from another āyah.

Thus:

Yad in the ḥadīth = whatever portion is directly indicated by the textual description (palm, wrist, forearm).

The report specifically contrasts between palm, wrist, and forearm — proving that yad was not being used with a fixed technical limit (such as “up to the wrist”).

If “yad = up to the wrist” by default, there would be no need for the ḥadīth to separately mention:

ẓahr al-kaff

al-rusgh

al-sa‘id

This differentiation only makes sense if yad is broader in meaning.
 
Also, read this article

 
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